It is a cornerstone of modern civilization (with its construction of private property rights) that private data vis a vis health be, in the ideal, entirely divorced from demands made by governments or sanctioned actors thereof.
DNA and other factors available in blood would seem to fall under "individually identifiable health information" by any definition: a blood sample confers the most unambiguous identification of a biological organism.
Do blood samples nonetheless fall under "permitted disclosures"? Why? It goes completely against the stated purpose of laws like HIPAA re: PII to transmit DNA or other identification data.
