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But if say, one group was more targeted they would have more priors and more multiple charges, isn’t it just a feedback loop?


Or say, one group has historical disadvantage which causes them to be disproportionately poor which causes them to be more likely themselves to commit crime and/or live in high crime areas. Which then leads to an increased police presence and, therefore, an increased chance of police interaction.

There's no need to add in the practically unprovable presence of deliberate targeting when other explanations sufficiently account for disparities.




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