Just to make sure we are on the same page: You don't think that increased levels of melanin means that an individual is more likely to be a criminal?
With that out of the way. The conversation went like this:
dsuth: "I thought that [the link between skin colour and crime in the US] was a fairly massive social issue over there, well-deserving of a wikipedia page."
me: "If there was a connection between skin color and crime in the US why would this genetic predisposition stop at the border?"
Didn't you mean to imply that blacks in countries bordering the US had substantially lower crime rates than blacks in the US? If you didn't, then I have no idea what you were getting at.
With that out of the way. The conversation went like this:
dsuth: "I thought that [the link between skin colour and crime in the US] was a fairly massive social issue over there, well-deserving of a wikipedia page."
me: "If there was a connection between skin color and crime in the US why would this genetic predisposition stop at the border?"
you: "Does it? http://news.nationalpost.com/2012/02/01/police-routinely-sup... "
I am not sure where we got our signals crossed.
* What were you questioning when you asked "does it?"
* What did you expect I was going to get out of the article you linked to?
* You do not think that a person's race is a matter of genetics?