> multinational entertainment conglomerates, who have twisted what is notionally a trade negotiation into a special interest money-grab
Honest question here, is there really a difference between the two? Is there some doctrine somewhere that specifies exactly what constitutes a trade negotiation and what is considered corruption of said negotiation? I see these kinds of statements thrown around a lot without a lot of justification.
Honest question here, is there really a difference between the two? Is there some doctrine somewhere that specifies exactly what constitutes a trade negotiation and what is considered corruption of said negotiation? I see these kinds of statements thrown around a lot without a lot of justification.